Let ππ(ππ) be the proposition that 1(1!) + 2(2!) + 3(3!) + β―+ ππ(ππ!) = (ππ+ 1)! β1. Prove by induction that ππ(ππ) is true for all ππβ₯1.
The Answer to the Question
is below this banner.
Can't find a solution anywhere?
NEED A FAST ANSWER TO ANY QUESTION OR ASSIGNMENT?
Get the Answers Now!You will get a detailed answer to your question or assignment in the shortest time possible.
Here's the Solution to this Question
LetΒ Β be the proposition that
BASIS STEP:
Β is true, becauseΒ
INDUCTIVE STEP:
For the inductive hypothesis we assume thatΒ Β holds for an arbitrary
positive integerΒ Β That is, we assume that
Under this assumption, it must be shown thatΒ Β is true, namely, that
When we addΒ Β to both sides of the equation inΒ Β we obtain
This last equation shows thatΒ Β is true under the assumption thatΒ Β is true. This completes the inductive step.
We have completed the basis step and the inductive step, so by mathematical induction we know thatΒ Β is true for all positive integersΒ
That is, we have proven that
for all positive integersΒ